8.14 - Practice Questions Set 3
Module: Type II High and Very-High-Pressure Appliances
Format: 25 original EPA 608-style multiple-choice practice questions; one best answer per question
Regulatory basis: Module 8 regulatory material verified August 12, 2026
Instructions
This 25-question set uses mixed service scenarios and current-versus-historical distinctions while still sampling all major Type II examination areas.
- Complete the set closed-book when using it as a mock exam.
- Choose the one best answer for each question.
- Do not check
8.15 - Answers and Explanations.mduntil the set is complete. - Project readiness target: 22 correct out of 25 on two separate closed-book attempts.
Question 1
A refrigeration unit on a truck cools cargo rather than the passenger compartment. The unit is not a small appliance and uses a high-pressure refrigerant. Which certification direction is correct for refrigerant service?
A. Section 609 only because the unit is mounted on a motor vehicle
B. Type III because all cargo systems are low pressure
C. Section 608 Type II
D. No technician certification is required
Question 2
Which refrigerant classification pair is correct for the current Section 608 pressure categories?
A. R-410A = very high pressure; R-23 = medium pressure
B. R-410A = high pressure; R-23 = very high pressure
C. R-410A = low pressure; R-23 = high pressure
D. R-410A = medium pressure; R-23 = low pressure
Question 3
Which statement correctly identifies refrigerant state in a typical cooling cycle?
A. Compressor discharge is high-pressure vapor, while the liquid line normally carries high-pressure liquid
B. Compressor discharge is low-pressure liquid, while the liquid line carries low-pressure vapor
C. Both the discharge line and liquid line contain only low-pressure vapor
D. The liquid line is part of the low side
Question 4
A Type II system has unusually high superheat. Which statement is most accurate?
A. High superheat proves the compressor motor has burned out
B. High superheat proves noncondensables are present
C. High superheat proves the system is overcharged
D. High superheat can be a low-charge clue, but restrictions or other faults can produce a similar symptom
Question 5
When selecting an electronic leak detector for a Type II appliance, what is especially important?
A. The detector must use the same hose color as the manifold
B. The detector must be compatible with the refrigerant being checked
C. The detector must always be used with oxygen
D. The detector must be connected to the recovery-cylinder liquid port
Question 6
A technician uses an older study guide and says a 12% annual leak rate on a covered 100-lb ODS comfort-cooling appliance is acceptable because the guide lists a 15% trigger. What is the correct CURRENT interpretation?
A. The technician is correct; 15% remains the current comfort-cooling trigger
B. The appliance is exempt because it contains more than 50 lb
C. The older 15% value is historical; the current comfort-cooling trigger is 10%, so 12% exceeds it
D. The current comfort-cooling trigger is 20%
Question 7
After a successful initial verification test and return to normal operating conditions as required, the current Section 608 leak-repair rule generally requires the follow-up verification test within:
A. 10 days
B. 30 days
C. 120 days
D. 1 year
Question 8
A residential/light-commercial air-conditioning appliance contains 20 lb of an HFC-only refrigerant. Which statement best describes the current AIM Act § 84.106 leak-repair framework discussed in Module 8?
A. It is automatically covered because every HFC appliance over 5 lb is included
B. It is covered by current Section 608 § 82.157 because it contains an HFC
C. It is covered only if the appliance was made before 1993
D. The residential/light-commercial A/C and heat-pump subsector is excluded from current § 84.106
Question 9
A recovery machine takes much longer than normal to remove refrigerant, and the inlet filter is heavily restricted. What effect can the restriction have?
A. Increase recovery flow
B. Reduce recovery flow and increase recovery time
C. Convert recovered refrigerant into virgin refrigerant
D. Increase the recovery cylinder’s allowable fill
Question 10
What does a recovery machine’s purge or self-clear function normally mean?
A. Vent residual refrigerant from the machine to the atmosphere
B. Add air to the machine before storage
C. Move residual refrigerant from internal passages toward the recovery container according to the manufacturer procedure
D. Bypass the recovery cylinder
Question 11
The low-side gauge has reached the required endpoint, but a receiver is isolated from that access point by a closed valve. What should the technician conclude?
A. The receiver may still contain refrigerant and must be checked or recovered before it is opened
B. The receiver is automatically empty because the low-side gauge reached the endpoint
C. The receiver may be vented because it is on the high side
D. The closed valve guarantees the receiver is under vacuum
Question 12
A recovery machine is not designed to accept unrestricted liquid directly at its inlet. What is the correct response if the technician wants to remove bulk liquid first?
A. Force liquid into the machine because liquid-first recovery is always mandatory
B. Heat the recovery cylinder until liquid enters the machine
C. Bypass the recovery machine’s safety controls
D. Use only the liquid-recovery configuration or method approved by the recovery-machine manufacturer
Question 13
What is the usual effect of a hot recovery cylinder on a self-contained recovery machine?
A. Lower discharge back pressure
B. Higher cylinder pressure and higher discharge back pressure
C. Lower refrigerant saturation pressure
D. Increased allowable cylinder fill
Question 14
For the current Type II Table 1, how is a high-pressure appliance with a full charge of EXACTLY 200 lb classified for the charge-size boundary?
A. It is treated as less than 200 lb
B. It is excluded from Table 1 because 200 lb is a gap between rows
C. It is treated as 200 lb or more
D. It is treated as very high pressure regardless of refrigerant
Question 15
What is the current Table 1 evacuation level for a very-high-pressure appliance?
A. 0 in. Hg vacuum for either recovery-equipment date column
B. 4 in. Hg vacuum for all recovery equipment
C. 10 in. Hg vacuum for post-1993 equipment only
D. 15 in. Hg vacuum for all recovery equipment
Question 16
In the current Type II evacuation table, 0 in. Hg vacuum means:
A. Zero absolute pressure
B. 500 microns absolute
C. A perfect vacuum
D. Approximately atmospheric pressure on the stated vacuum reference
Question 17
A system is designed so refrigerant can be pumped into and isolated in a receiver before service. What must still be done before opening the isolated service section?
A. Nothing; pump-down automatically satisfies every evacuation requirement
B. Evacuate and verify the section being opened to the applicable required condition
C. Vent the trapped vapor from the service section
D. Heat the receiver until its pressure is zero
Question 18
A technician plans to remove an auxiliary heat-exchange coil and expects the refrigerant circuit to be open for only a few minutes. Can the work be treated as non-major solely because the opening time is short?
A. Yes, if the opening is less than 15 minutes
B. Yes, if the appliance contains less than 200 lb
C. No. Removal of an auxiliary heat-exchange coil is specifically major work regardless of the short opening time
D. No, because every refrigerant-circuit opening is major
Question 19
What are the two principal functions of a typical liquid-line filter-drier?
A. Filter particulate contamination and absorb moisture
B. Store the entire system charge and control superheat
C. Increase compressor discharge pressure and cool the motor
D. Replace the receiver and accumulator
Question 20
Recovered refrigerant from a severe compressor burnout is suspected to be heavily contaminated. What is the BEST practice?
A. Mix it with known clean recovered refrigerant to dilute the contamination
B. Keep it segregated and follow the applicable contaminated-refrigerant/reclaimer procedure
C. Vent it because contaminated refrigerant cannot be recovered
D. Return it directly to any appliance using the same refrigerant
Question 21
A hermetic compressor is intentionally de-energized while the refrigerant circuit is under deep vacuum. Why should the technician also prevent an automatic control or remote command from starting it?
A. An accidental start under deep vacuum can create internal electrical arcing and compressor damage
B. Automatic controls always cause refrigerant overcharge
C. Remote commands convert the compressor into system-dependent recovery equipment
D. A compressor can be safely started in vacuum as long as the start is automatic
Question 22
Which problem is NOT corrected simply by installing or energizing a crankcase heater?
A. Off-cycle refrigerant migration toward a cold compressor
B. Refrigerant dilution of crankcase oil during the off cycle
C. Operating liquid floodback caused by an evaporator or metering problem
D. Startup oil foaming associated with off-cycle migration
Question 23
Recovery has slowed because refrigerant remains in a cold component. A technician proposes using a torch to warm the component. What is the correct response?
A. Do not use an open flame; use only a controlled warming method permitted for the appliance and refrigerant
B. Use the torch only on the compressor discharge line
C. Use the torch if the recovery cylinder is less than half full
D. Use the torch until the appliance reaches 0 psig
Question 24
Which statement correctly describes a pressure-relief device on a Type II refrigeration system?
A. It should be used routinely to control normal head pressure
B. It is emergency overpressure protection and must not be defeated
C. It replaces the need for a high-pressure control
D. It should be capped during normal operation
Question 25
Module 8 notes a May 2026 proposal that would exempt certain road/intermodal transport refrigeration units from AIM Act leak-repair requirements. How should that proposal be treated when answering a current-rule question?
A. Treat the proposal as already effective for every refrigerated-transport appliance
B. Treat it as proposed only; the current rule remains controlling until a final rule changes it
C. Apply the proposal only to ODS appliances under Section 608 § 82.157
D. Use the proposal to replace all current AIM Act trigger rates
Score
Score: _____ / 25
Readiness target: 22 / 25
Detailed answers and explanations for all three Type II practice sets will be provided in 8.15 - Answers and Explanations.md.